General Discussion

If one's intent is to draw parallels with the holocaust (as in "the victims have become the perpetrators", for instance), it is without question antisemitic.

If, on the other hand, the intent is to accuse the State of Israel of "acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such", as in the definition established by the UN Genocide Convention, the evidence is just not there to establish guilt as charged, and the accusation is at best premature. So the intent doesn't rise to outright antisemitism, it is a mere expression of prejudice towards a certain nation.

It is possible that accusing Israel of genocide falls under one of the examples cited in the IHRA definition of antisemitism, but, according to them, it depends on the context in which it is being used.