General Discussion

what does the phrase "Killing a group of innocent people as a tool to induce a third party to act in a desired manner is immoral." mean?

Who is the group of innocent people? Who is killing them? Who is the third party to be induced to act in the desired manner? What is the desired manner?

Everything you said since then, in the context of the current starvation crisis or otherwise, leads me to believe that you meant the following: Israel is doing the killing. A group of innocent people are Gazan civilians and/or gazan children.The third party is Hamas. Desired manner is releasing the hostages. You called this immoral.

Tell me you meant something else. If you did, tell me what you meant in the context of of the current starvation crisis.

In whatever context you intended your posts to be, I challenged your presuppositions. Let me be clear how: Inducing the release of the hostages is the most moral thing one can do. Israel is inducing the release of the hostages by killing the immoral people who took the hostages., Hamas, the immoral third party, place Gazan civilians, the innocent people, in the path of lethal force, a tool intended for Hamas, the immoral third party. In the letter and the spirit of international law, it is Hamas who is culpable of killing innocent Gazans.

Rather than address any of it, you stated that Hamas, the culpable third party, cannot be prevented from acting immorally because the US has no control over it. You further stated that since the US has control of Israel, it is Israel alone that should be judged by your morality standards.

This is the extent of your posts and my replies. If your statements were made in the context of the current starvation crisis, how are my direct replies to them are not?